• pendel@feddit.org
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    19 hours ago

    Because it’s not worth engaging with this person I just copy paste my answer to the other place where they posted this.

    Thanks for linking a source but this is a misleading interpretation, please don’t try to argue with data if you don’t know how to interpret it.

    You need to look at e.g. the top 10%, middle 40% and bottom 50% to get a proper idea. And then look at it country by country because the scales don’t match. Yes, the USA are extremely inequal, I think back to like 1913 level in 2013 or something like that iirc, so if you put them on a plot with e.g. France, France will look great.

    But if you look at France alone you get a different picture and inequality is rising again since the 80s. Here’s an article by a French economist with research focus on inequality which cites the same data: https://blogs.lse.ac.uk/inequalities/2025/09/24/global-inequality-in-historical-perspective-part-1/

    • Hotznplotzn@lemmy.sdf.org
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      18 hours ago

      Yeah, you may have misunderstood my point. So once again for you: It’s not perfect in Europe, inequality rises here, but inequality in China is now higher than it is in Europe.

      • pendel@feddit.org
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        18 hours ago

        You obviously did not look at the data they used as source

        • CanadaPlus@lemmy.sdf.org
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          18 hours ago

          I actually did. I have nits to pick with the map, but the conclusion that Russia has a lot and Europe has (relatively) little is well known. And again, what does the US have to do with it?

          Reading the thread back again, you’re probably right that inequality in Europe has grown somewhat, if that was your main point.

          Edit: And your source is excellent, by the way. Very interesting. Picketty delivers.