I guess the part I don’t understand what you’re trying to assert re: time since “industrialization” vs wealth inequality.
Are you saying industrialization is responsible for lowering inequality or creating it?
If you’re suggesting it creates inequality, then I would expect Europe to have higher inequality than China. It does not.
If you are suggesting it reduces inequality, then I would expect China’s wealth inequality to be trending downwards since the 70s. It is not. It has risen sharply in that time frame.
I’m still assuming that I’m just misunderstanding your hypothesis… so I guess my question would just be:
What do you hypothesize the process of industrialization does to weath distribution?
I guess the part I don’t understand what you’re trying to assert re: time since “industrialization” vs wealth inequality.
Are you saying industrialization is responsible for lowering inequality or creating it?
If you’re suggesting it creates inequality, then I would expect Europe to have higher inequality than China. It does not.
If you are suggesting it reduces inequality, then I would expect China’s wealth inequality to be trending downwards since the 70s. It is not. It has risen sharply in that time frame.
I’m still assuming that I’m just misunderstanding your hypothesis… so I guess my question would just be:
What do you hypothesize the process of industrialization does to weath distribution?
Europe has industrialize more then 20 years ago. So inequality does not increase due to that process, but it does in China.